Whereas last time we examined 6 interpretations people hold for Hebrews 1.10-12, today we look at just one–the 7th. Jerry Wierwille is my guest again and in this episode he explains his take on Hebrews 1.10-12. He delves into wisdom christology to show how these verses speak of Jesus protologically as wisdom that created the heavens and the earth.
Listen to this episode on Spotify or Apple Podcasts
—— Recommended Reading ——
- “Intertextuality and Interpretation of Hebrews 1:10-12” by Jerry Wierwille
- Jesus the Sage by Ben Witherington III
- The New Testament Age, Vol 1
—— Links ——
- Check out these other episodes in this series on Hebrews 1
- See more episodes with Jerry Wierwille
- More resources on Hebrews 1.10
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Sean and Jerry, I appreciate the diligent work and discussion.
I feel the key to understanding Heb. 1:10 is Heb. 1:2. The writer’s style attributes an act to God (2:10) and again to the Son (1:10) and also the Son under God (1:2b). Understanding that the work accredited to the Son, is ultimately the Father in the Son performing it, answers the Son having “laid the foundation of the earth,…” (Hebrews 1:10).
Hebrews 1:2 [God] in these last days has spoken to us in his Son, whom he [God] appointed heir of all things, through whom [the Son] 𝐚𝐥𝐬𝐨 he [God] made the world.
“..the works of Jesus are set forth as the works of God, which the Father performs, that is, in virtue of His immanence in the Son, making them to operate in an outward direction.”
—Heinrich Meyer’s Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the New Testament (John 14:10)
“The mutual indwelling is such that everything Jesus says or does is the Father’s saying or doing. This was so obvious that Jesus could appeal to the works He did in case His assertion was disbelieved.”—The Expositor’s Greek Testament (John 14:10)
Through Christ (who is the same and enduring) and surely not the angels ( part of creation subject to change) were ‘the foundation of the earth and the heavens laid’ is the point of 1:10. (For the Son came into existence differently having ‘came forth out of the Father,’ He is thus before all things (creation) but not before the beginning but rather is the beginning.)
Only the Father could testify of the Son (not an attribute of wisdom) in regard to the creation (1:8, 10), and only the Son could testify of the Father in regard to creation (Mark 10:6, 13:19; John 3:31-32), thus each providing the necessary witness to the other.
Hebrews 1:8 “But unto the Son [not unto the angels] he [God] saith..”
Hebrews 1:10 “and, “you, Lord [the Son], in the beginning laid the foundation of the earth, and the heavens are the works of your hands;”
Mark 10:6 “… the creation God made..”
Mark 13:19 “… the creation which God created..”
John 3:31-32 “He who comes from heaven is above all. 32 What He has seen and heard, of that He testifies; and no one receives His testimony.
Thanks to you guys for doing this three part discussion. I just have to be honest and say that the explanation of Jerry is too complicated. I don’t mean that Jerry’s view is hard to understand but a lot of the problems it seems to come from how he is saying that 1:10-12 has to be about Jesus being a creator in some way. Like Sean said, no wisdom is mentioned in Hebrews so that doesn’t seem to help. Maybe it creates more problems by introducing words and ideas outside of the book.
Points taken, Julian – but a lot may depend on exactly who the original target audience was for the ‘Epistle to the Hebrews’ (originally called ‘The Epistle to the Alexandrians’, as mentioned in the ‘Muratorian Canon’ ?), and who wrote the Epistle (Apollos of Alexandria ?). The ideas contained in Hebrews chapter one, may have readily made a lot more sense to First century CE Alexandrian, Hellenistic Christian Jews than they do to Christians in other places, times and cultures.
Hi Julian,
Thanks for responding to the episode. As Sean and I openly claim, “wisdom” (σοφία) is not directly mentioned in the Letter to the Hebrews. But I think there is good evidence that the idea is likely present given the language of vv. 2-3 and the conceptual framework that it presents. If you would be so kind as to clarify what specific “problems” you have in mind, I might be better able to understand what you are referring to.
Blessings,
Jerry
Why does Hebrews 1:10-12 quote Psalm 102:25-27 and apply it to the Son, when the psalm says that it is addressed to God? Because the Son is the one through whom God performed the creative works there described by the psalmist. (See Colossians 1:15, 16; Proverbs 8:22, 27-30.)
I know this text is often used to show since it is talking about Jehovah in Psalms that Jesus must be Yehovah. However, we know that can’t be since Yehovah is the God of the Messiah according to Micah 5:4. Could it be to understand Hebrews 1:10 we could just read a few more verses? In Hebrews 2:7 it tells us, “You made him a little lower than angels; you crowned him with glory and honor, and appointed him over THE WORKS OF YOUR HANDS.” Whose hands? The God and Father of Jesus Christ who is Yehovah God. Now when we go back to Hebrews 1:10 it makes scriptural sense that it speaks about the heavens and earth as the work of his hands and Jesus absolutely was appointed to participate in making all things as he always is when having a share in fulfilling God’s purpose. As Psalm 8:6 tells us: “You [Yehovah] gave him [Jesus] dominion over the works of your hands; You have put everything under his feet:”
So when it comes to Yehovah in Ps. 102 the writer here attributes these qualities to Jesus Christ, because Jesus is the one whom God used in the work of creation and to whom he has now committed all authority “in heaven and on the earth.” (Matt. 28:18; Col. 1:15-17) Jesus represents the God that no one has ever seen to us fully in all his qualities and actions.(John 1:18)
Psalm 22, attributed to David, relates, partly in figurative language, some of the sufferings of Christ. (Compare Psalm 22:1 with Mark 15:34; also compare the entire Psalm with the four gospel accounts of Jesus’ trial and death.) Are Jesus and David the same person? No! A scripture in Matthew 2:15 applies to Jesus, but the earlier reference in Hosea 11:1 applies to Israel. Does than make them the same? No! There is a prophecy about Elijah in Malachi 4:5 that is applied to John the Baptist in Matthew 17:12,13; 11:14. Is John the Baptist really Elijah? No! They just did a similar work. I think you get the point.
Thanks guys for this series. I agree that, with wisdom not mentioned, the ideas seems a stretch too far. My thinking is that while yes, Jesus is the wisdom of God – as he is many other things of God, love, etc, he is predominately the logos. I wondered if we can’t answer this as we might with John 17:5 “And now, Father, glorify me in Your presence with the glory I had with You before the world existed.”
Who is Jesus? Who does scripture say he is? He is the logos made flesh. Jesus understood his beginnings. The word/logos was with God in the very beginning. Jesus IS NOW that logos which was in the beginning, made into a man through Mary! 1John 1 explains the logos as a ‘which’, a ‘what’ – not a who. The logos IS responsible, at God’s utterance for all things – Jesus too, as Sean noted with Levi being credited before he literally existed, Jesus as the logos made flesh is also attributed to creation as he is the glory that was ‘in the beginning’. The credit to Jesus for ‘all things came through him’ (1Cor 8:6 etc), are an expression of how pivotal are Jesus’ accomplishments – without him, creation was pointless! With him, creation has a purpose and can realise its potential for eternal life, not simply a finite physical existence for no good reason. Thanks for the podcasts – keep up the excellent work.!!!